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Quiz Medical Council of Canada - MCCQE - Accurate MCCQE Part 1 Exam Valid Vce
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Our MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam dumps give help to give you an idea about the actual MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam. You can attempt multiple MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam questions on the software to improve your performance. You have the option to change the topic and set the time according to the actual Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam.
Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):
NEW QUESTION # 17
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother because her daughter is crying and says she "can't pee." Her daughter fell on the monkey bars at school earlier that day. On examination, there is a large vulvar bruise anteriorly. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Ask the mother to leave the room and ask the patient if someone abused her.
- B. Order complete blood count and coagulation studies.
- C. Consult gynecology if bladder catheterization is difficult.
- D. Arrange a retrograde outpatient arthrography.
- E. Discharge the patient home to do sitz baths.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In pediatric trauma, inability to void with perineal bruising raises concern for urethral injury or urinary retention due to soft tissue swelling. The most immediate step is to attempt bladder catheterization. If unsuccessful, consult gynecology or urology urgently to avoid bladder overdistension.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Genitourinary Trauma:
"In females, perineal trauma can lead to urinary retention due to labial hematomas or urethral injury. If catheterization is difficult, consult gynecology or urology for assistance." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Trauma and Emergency Care:
"Candidates must recognize when specialist consultation is required in pediatric genitourinary trauma, especially in cases of failed catheterization." Options B and D delay necessary care. Coagulation studies (C) may be considered if bleeding is unexplained.
Abuse assessment (E) may be necessary later but does not address immediate retention.
NEW QUESTION # 18
An 85-year-old man is transferred from an acute care hospital to your long-term care (LTC) facility. He has a fever, fatigue, myalgia, and malaise. His test result is positive for influenza A virus. Two other residents and 1 LTC staff member have experienced the same symptoms. Which one of the following is the best next step to prevent further infections at the LTC facility?
- A. Ensure that all visitors are immunized.
- B. Order symptomatic LTC staff to stay home.
- C. Enforce mandatory influenza vaccination for LTC staff.
- D. Ask all visitors to wear a mask.
Answer: B
Explanation:
During an outbreak in a long-term care facility, prompt control measures include keeping symptomatic staff at home to prevent spread. Staff are often vectors of infection, and exclusion is a key public health intervention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases, "Infection Control and Prevention":
"During influenza outbreaks in institutional settings, exclusion of symptomatic staff is critical to controlling spread." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 63-2: Outbreak Management):
"Candidates must understand outbreak control, including staff exclusion, cohorting, and surveillance in congregate settings." Vaccination (B) is preventive but not immediately effective during an outbreak. Masking and visitor vaccination are supportive but secondary measures.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A 59-year-old woman comes to the office because her 48-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Your patient thinks her mother may have also had cervical cancer. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test performed 16 months ago had normal results, as did all previous Pap tests. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Offer annual Pap testing for the next 5 years.
- B. Arrange for human papillomavirus testing.
- C. Offer a repeat Pap test 3 years from the previous one.
- D. Offer a repeat Pap test now.
- E. Arrange for colposcopy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
For women aged 25-69 years who have had adequate negative screening, the recommendation is to repeat cervical cytology (Pap test) every 3 years, regardless of family history. Cervical cancer is caused primarily by HPV infection, not hereditary genetics. Family history does not alter the screening interval.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Cervical Cancer Screening Section:
"Routine screening with Pap test is recommended every 3 years in women aged 25-69 who have had three consecutive negative tests. Family history of cervical cancer does not modify the screening interval." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics and Gynecology > Cancer Screening:
"Candidates must apply population-based cervical cancer screening guidelines. Family history is not a risk modifier for screening frequency in cervical cancer." Options A and B are inappropriate as they increase screening frequency without indication. HPV testing (D) or colposcopy (E) are not recommended without abnormal cytology.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A 76-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state. He has a history of chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine level of 300 µmol/L (49-93) and a history of dilated cardiomyopathy with an ejection fraction of 30%. On assessment, he has no pulse or blood pressure. Cardiac monitor demonstrates a wide complex tachycardia. Which one of the following recently started medications is the most likely cause of this arrhythmia?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Diltiazem
- C. Metoprolol
- D. Spironolactone
- E. Clopidogrel
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly wide complex tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology and Nephrology, "Hyperkalemia" Section:
"Patients with CKD are at increased risk for hyperkalemia, particularly when taking potassium-sparing medications such as spironolactone. Severe hyperkalemia may cause bradycardia or wide-complex tachyarrhythmias." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-2: Electrolyte Abnormalities):
"Candidates must recognize drug-induced hyperkalemia as a cause of cardiac arrhythmias, especially in patients with renal dysfunction." Hydrochlorothiazide (B) can cause hypokalemia. Metoprolol (C) and diltiazem (E) are rate-controlling agents but do not typically cause wide complex tachycardia. Clopidogrel (D) has no effect on cardiac conduction.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A 22-year-old woman presents to the office for episodic mood changes that her boyfriend has noticed. During such episodes, she cries suddenly, is irritable and sad, and withdraws from socializing. Which one of the following would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
- A. Urine drug screen.
- B. Interviewing the boyfriend alone.
- C. Trial of lorazepam.
- D. Personality testing.
- E. Mood journal.
Answer: E
Explanation:
A mood journal is a structured tool that allows the patient to record mood fluctuations, triggers, and timing. It is particularly helpful in identifying mood disorders such as premenstrual dysphoric disorder, bipolar disorder, or cyclothymia.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Mood Disorders:
"Mood diaries are useful in identifying temporal patterns, such as menstrual cycle-linked mood changes, and in distinguishing between affective disorders." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Diagnostic Evaluation:
"Candidates should use clinical tools such as symptom diaries to assist in establishing the pattern and nature of psychiatric symptoms." Personality testing (A) is not first-line. Urine drug screen (B) is only indicated with suspicion of substance use. Lorazepam (D) treats symptoms, not diagnosis. Interviewing the boyfriend (E) may help, but only as a supplement to direct observation and self-report.
NEW QUESTION # 22
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